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Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site watcgl.UUCP
Path: utzoo!watmath!watcgl!dmmartindale
From: dmmartindale@watcgl.UUCP (Dave Martindale)
Newsgroups: net.singles
Subject: Re: "forward women"
Message-ID: <2916@watcgl.UUCP>
Date: Fri, 3-Aug-84 22:48:25 EDT
Article-I.D.: watcgl.2916
Posted: Fri Aug  3 22:48:25 1984
Date-Received: Sat, 4-Aug-84 02:17:12 EDT
References: <441@ames.UUCP>, <1260@nsc.UUCP>, <2942@alice.UUCP>
Organization: U of Waterloo, Ontario
Lines: 16

Assume that it is true that 9 times out of 10 (or 19 times out of 20)
it doesn't pay for the woman to phone the man.

By the same argument, 5 times out of 10 it doesn't pay for the man to
phone the woman (because she's uninterested, or him phoning will make
her less interested).  Should men then not bother phoning either?

Suppose that it is true that 9 times out of 10, women would rather not
be treated as complete equals?  Should men then not do so?

Why is "it's easier" considered a sufficient reason for a woman
to take advantage of a situation where she seems to have the advantage,
but that's not an acceptable reason for a man doing exactly the same thing?


If a woman wants to be seen by men as an equal, she should behave as one.