Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site gummo.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!decvax!mcnc!unc!ulysses!harpo!gummo!mmc From: mmc@gummo.UUCP Newsgroups: net.religion.jewish Subject: Re: Re: Kosher Meals -- meat and fish to - (nf) Message-ID: <988@gummo.UUCP> Date: Fri, 24-Feb-84 10:55:13 EST Article-I.D.: gummo.988 Posted: Fri Feb 24 10:55:13 1984 Date-Received: Sat, 25-Feb-84 04:22:06 EST Sender: mmc@gummo.UUCP Organization: AT&T Bell Laboratories, Whippany Lines: 27 #R:pegasus:-98100:gummo:67600001:000:1091 gummo!mmc Feb 24 10:55:00 1984 I was told (no authority cited, so this constitutes semi-informed hearsay) that the prohibition on eating fish with meat is a Rabbinical ordinance, based on a contemporary belief that the combination was unhealthful. Speaking from a somewhat traditional though non-Orthodox position, and given that (1) my recollection is accurate and (2) that the basis of the prohibition of eating fish with meat is as it was described to me, I do not see a basis for this regulation today other than the argument that our observance must follow the pattern set by our ancestors. It might be interesting for our group to discuss the following general question in the philosophy oh Halachah (Jewish religious law): Given a Rabbinical ordinance explicitly based on information available when that ordinance was promulgated, and given information available to us now which significantly alters our understanding of the basis of the ordinance, what should our attitude as Jews be toward the original ordinance? I address this question to all interested parties. Mark Chodrow {zeppo,harpo,gummo}!mmc